Thủ Thuật Hướng dẫn De Kiểm tra Anh 6 có file nghe violet Chi Tiết

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ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2022 –2022
MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11​

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answersheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences.

Question 1: A.

energy B. supply C. dirty D. happy

Question 2: A. pear B. spear C. bear D. swear

Question 3: A. swing B. sweat C. swan D. answer

Question 4:

A. needs B. meets C. skills D. loves

Question 5: A. watched B. forced C. worked D. solved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6

: Hunting for meat and burning forests for soils __________ wildife.

A. protect B. conserve C. destroy D. survive

Question 7: I would like to send these letters ____________ air mail .

A. in B. with C. by D. over

Question 8: The government sent money and food to the people __________ houses were destroyed by the storm last week.

A. which B. that C. whom D. whose

Question 9: Human beings have great __________ on the rest of the world.

A. focus B. attention C. influence D. attraction

Question 10: He is the postman ___________ I got this letter.

A. from who B. to whom C. from whom D. with whom

Question 11: Coal, oil, and forests are the most important ___________ resources.

A. industrial B. agricultural C. natural D. national

Question 12: It’s the best film ___________ has ever been made about madness.

A. which B. whom C. whose D. that

Question 13: Thanh Ba Post Office provides customers ____________ the Messenger Call Services.

A. with B. for C. of D. to

Question 14: The energy ____________ by the windmill drives all the drainage pumps.

A. producing B. produced C. that is producing D. which produces

Question 15: The human race is only one small species in the living world. Many ___________ species exist on this planet.

A. the others B. others C. the other D. other

Question 16: We have stopped buying goods from that shop as most of them are __________ poor quality.

A. in B. under C. with D. on

Question 17: Being recognized in the street is part and ____________ of being a celebrity

A. packet B. parcel C. package D. post

Question 18: ____________ national parks all over the world have been established to protect endangered animals.

A. Thousand B. Thousands C. Thousands of D. Thousand of

Question 19: We are proud of our _________ staff, who are always friendly and efficient.

A. well-appointed B. well-done C. well-behaved D. well-trained

Question 20: _________ is a great source of energy but very dangerous.

A. Solar energy B. Water power C. Nuclear power D. Wind energy

Question 21: The receptionist didn’t know ____________ whom the message was intended.

A. B. with C. to D. for

Question 22: The sun, water and the wind are other __ sources of energy.

A. renewable B. reused C. alternative D. exhausted

Question 23: It __________ a lot of patience to be a nurse.

A. takes B. spends C. costs D. uses

Question 24: It is estimated that only 1,000 pandas remain in __________ wild.

A. a B. an C. no article D. the

Question 25: The situation of COVID-19 worldwide is still serious, ___________ ?

A. is not it B. isn’t it C. is it D. doesn’t it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 26:

Cindy wanted to drive her best friend to have dinner an Italian restaurant but her car couldn’t start. Therefore, she had to borrow one from Nancy.

– Cindy: “Would you mind lending me your car?” – Nancy: ” ____________ . ”

A. Great B. Yes. Here it is C. Yes, let’s D. No, not all.

Question 27: Peter and John are in a café.

Peter: “What’s your favourite pastime?” John: ” ”

A. My past time is nice. B. Ok, I like it. C. I beg your pardon. D. I worked hard in the past.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 28:

Factories located on the coastline have released untreated pollution directly into the ocean.

A. located B. have released C. pollution D. directly

Question 29: Radio stations which broadcast only news first appeared in the 1970s.

A. which B. only news C. appeared D. the

Question 30: Reading books, listening to music and play sports are among the most popular leisure activities.

A. play B. are C. the D. leisure activities

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 31:

If the world’s tropical forests continue to disappear their present rate, many animal species will become extinct.

A

. die for B. die from C. die of D. die out

Question 32: Oil spills are having a devastating effect on coral reefs in the ocean.

A. powerful B. significant C. disastrous D. detectable

Question 33: Newspapers and magazines are often delivered early in the morning.

A. offered B. given C. provided D.distributed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Human beings (34)__________ to protect only the beautiful and non-threatening parts of our environment. We tend to pay more (35)________ to animals on land than any other large sea animals. Environmentalists have not done much enough to help save the Pacific Ocean sharks (36)_________ population has decreased nearly to the point of extinction. Sharks are among the oldest creatures on Earth, having survived in the seas for more than 350 million years. The fact that they have managed to live in the oceans for so many millions of years is enough proofs of their efficiency and adaptability to change environments. It’s time (37)_________ human beings to begin considering the protection of sharks as (38)______ important part of a program for protection of our natural environment.

Question 34: A. seem B. make C. advise D. let

Question 35: A. pleasure B. attention C. notice D. fun

Question 36: A. that B. whom C. whose D. which

Question 37: A. for that B. when C. for which D. for

Question 38: A.

No article B. an C. the D. a

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Energy is fundamental to human beings, especially to poor people – the one-third of humanity that does not have modern energy supplies like electricity or natural gas, with which their life could be improved. Many people who live in countryside and mountainous areas have to gather fuel wood. This takes a lot of time. Moreover, it causes indoor air pollution because of heavy smoke. For many people living in rural areas in developing countries of the world, biogas is the large energy resources available and costs almost nothing. The main use of biogas is for cooking and heating, but it can also provide energy for public transport. As biogas is smoke-không lấy phí, it helps solve the problem of indoor air pollution. Moreover, plant waste and animal manure cost almost nothing. The tendency to use renewable energy sources in developing countries is on the increase when non-renewable ones are running out. In the near future, people in the developing countries may use wind or sea waves as the environment-friendly energy sources.

Question 39: What is the role of energy to human beings?

A. unimportant B. fundamental

C. unnecessary D. not very necessary

Question 40: What do poor people in countryside do to have energy?

A. They look for coal B. They look for oil

C. They gather fuel wood D. They use gas cookers

Question 41: How long does it take to gather fuel wood in the countryside?

A. A lot of time B. Not much time

C. Very little time D. Half an hour a day

Question 42: According to the passage, what energy sources do poor people often use for fuel?

A. oil B. wood B. nuclear energy D. petrol

Question 43: According to the passage, what is the most awful effect of using fuel wood?

A. It may cause fire. B. It damages their houses.

C. It affects the local scenery. D. It causes indoor air pollution

Question 44: What is the main use of biogas?

A. It is used mainly for cooking and heating B. It is mainly used for lighting.

C. It is mainly used for operating. D. It is mainly used for producing in factories.

Question 45: Why, according to the passage, is biogas introduced to poor people?

A. Because it is easy to use

B. Because it is the largest energy resource available in the countryside and cheap

C. Because it is not harmful D. Because they like it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46:

Romeo and Juliet is a famous play . Shakespeare wrote it in 1605 .

A. Romeo and Juliet is a famous play written by Shakespeare in 1605.

B. Romeo and Juliet, which is a famous play, was written by Shakespeare in 1605.

C. Romeo and Juliet is a famous play which was written by Shakespeare in 1605.

D. Romeo and Juliet, a famous play which was written by Shakespeare in 1605.

Question 47: Sue lives in this house. The house is opposite my house.

A. Sue lives in this house, which is opposite mine.

B. Sue lives in this house which is opposite mine.

C. Sue lives in this house, that is opposite mine.

D. Sue lives in this house, where is opposite mine.

Question 48: The boy is called Duncan. He sits next to me in class.

A. The boy whose is called Duncan sits next to me in class.

B. The boy who sits next to me in class is called Duncan.

C. The boy whom sits next to me in class is called Duncan.

D. The boy to whom he sits next is called Duncan.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 49:

She had only just begun to speak when people started interrupting.

A. She hardly had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

B. Hardly she had begun to speak when people started interrupting.

C. Hardly had she begun to speak when people started interrupting.

D. She hadn’t begun to speak when people started interrupting.

Question 50: He admitted his failure and praised his opponent’s performance.

A. He both failed and praised his opponent’s performance.

B. He neither admitted his failure nor praised his opponent’s performance.

C. Not only did he fail but he also praised his opponent’s performance.

D. Admitting his failure, he praised his opponent’s performance.

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2022 –2022
MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11​

LANGUAGE Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0.5p).

Question 1.

A. swallow B. sword C. swing D. swim

Question 2. A. capture B. land C. marathon D. parade

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions (2.5p).

Question 3.

___________ is produced from the heat of the sun.

Geothermal energy C. Nuclear energy

Solar energy D. Water energy

Question 4. Do you still remember the day ________ you sent me that letter?

A. on when B. why C. on which D. where

Question 5. Have you ever met the man _________ over there?

A. stands B. is standing C. standing D. who he is standing

Question 6. The chemical _____from cars and factories make the air, water and soil dangerously dirty.

A. pollute B. polluted C. pollution D. pollutants

Question 7. Nowadays many rare animals are disappearing because human beings are interfering ____ the environment in which these animals live.

A. on B. to C. of D. with

Question 8. Only six _________ were played in the first Asian Games.

A. athletes B. coaches C. sports events D. spectators

Question 9. A clerk: “Good morning! __________________________”

Bob: “I want to have a telephone line installed home.”

A. Can I help you? C. Excuse me!

B. May I come in? D. Where do you live?

Question 10. We are proud of our ______ staff, who are always friendly and courteous to customers.

A. well-appointed B. well-done C. well-trained D. well-behaved

Question 11. Thousands of national parks have been _________ to protect endangered animals.

A. put on B. turned off C. given up D. set up

Question 12. Hung: “Thank you very much for a lovely party.”

Hoa: “_______. ”

A. You are welcome C. Thanks

B. Have a good day D. Cheers

WRITING Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions (1.0p).

Question 13.

In an essay writing in 1779, Judith Sargeant Murray promoted the cause of women’s education. A B C D

Question 14.

The tuy nhiên to whom we listened last night was interesting.

A B C D

Question 15.

The waiter who serves us yesterday was polite and friendly.

A B C D

Question 16.

Linh passed the exam with flying color, that made her parents happy.

A B C D READING

Read the passage and choose the correct option for each blank (1.5p).

Up to now, Thailand has been the host country of the Asian Games four times. In 1966, Thailand (17) ________the Games for the first time. It was the 5th Games with 18 countries (18) _______. In 1970, South Korean dropped its plan to host the games (19) _________ security threats from North Korea, and the previous host Thailand administered the Games in Bangkok using the funds of South Korea. In 1978, Pakistan dropped its plan to host the Game due to conflicts (20) ________ Bangladesh and India. Thailand (21) ________ to help and the Games were held in Bangkok. The 13th Asian Games was held in Bangkok, Thailand from 6th to 20th December, 1998. This is (22) _________ largest Asian Games held in this millennium, with 9,469 athletes and officials from over 41 countries participating. The Games went smoothly without any problems in the spirit of the motto: “Friendship Beyond Frontiers”. This is also the last Asian Games to be hosted this century.

Question 17.A. has heldB. holdC. heldD. will holdQuestion 18.A. competeB. to competeC. competedD. competingQuestion 19.A. asB. due toC. becauseD. despiteQuestion 20.A. onB. ofC. withD. toQuestion 21.A. offeredB. advisedC. suggestedD. madeQuestion 22.A. ØB. anC. aD. the

Read the following passage and then choose the correct answer A, B, C or D (1.5p).

One of the most urgent environment problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, industrial pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes and even entire seas have become vast pools of poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of largest lake in the world. It contains a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of industrial pollutants which pour into the lake every day. Even where law existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them.

Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea occupies 1% of the world’s water surface. But it is the dumping ground for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost sixteen countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles off shore.

Water is không lấy phí to everyone. A few years ago people thought that the supply of clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been ruined by pollution and sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are last beginning to respect this precious source. We should do something now.

Question 23. Many sources of water are not drinkable because of_________.

A. industrial pollution B. acid rain

B. acid rain, industrial pollution and garbage D. garbage

Question 24. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ____________.

A. industrial pollutants B. animals C. plants D. animals and plants

Question 25. What is a serious problem of Lake Baikal in Russia?

A. The government did not have the power to enforce laws and regulations.

B. It contains a rich variety of animals and plants.

C. It is polluted by massive volumes of industrial wastes discharged into it.

D. It has 1,300 rare species that do not exist anywhere else in the world.

Question 26. How many percent of the world’s water surface does the Mediterranean Sea keep?

A. 1% B. 5% C. 10% D. 50%

Question 27. The word “sewage” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. freshness B. excess C. poison D. rubbish

Question 28. The passage’s message to the readers is that we should _____________.

A. encourage people to use safe water C. limit the clean water in the world

B. do something to protect our water resources D. use a lot of clean water

B. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN (3.0p) VOCABULARY Give the correct form of the word in brackets to complete each of the following sentences (0.5p).

Question 29.

People shouldn’t keep animals for (recreate) _______ and entertainment.

Question 30. Solar energy is not only (plenty) ________ and infinite but also clean and safe.

WRITING Combine each pair of sentences, using suitable RELATIVE PRONOUNS (0.5p).

Question 31:

They have just met to Mr. John Davinson. He is a famous teacher.

à __________________________________________.

Question 32: The book was very interesting. You borrowed it two weeks ago.

à __________________________________________.

Rewrite the following sentences, using PARTICIPLE or TO INFINITIVE (0.5p).

Question 33:

The guitar which was bought 30 years ago is still new now.

à __________________________________________.

Question 34: Linda was the second student who answered this question correctly.

à __________________________________________.

Write a description paragraph of Ba Vi National Park, using the following prompts (1.5p).

Ba Vi National Park/ situated/ Ba Vi district/ 50 km/ Ha Noi City. It/ cover/ an area of 10.814,6 ha. Ba Vi/ characterised by/ biodiversity/ tropical forest/ abundant natural resources. It/ be/ also famous for/ Saola/ several new species of deer and antelope/ other rare animals and plants. Ba Vi/ preserve/ 70 species of animals/ 187 kinds of birds/ 56 sorts of fish/ 38 species of reptiles. Visitors/ come here/ see / many wonderful landscapes.

____________ THE END ___________​

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2022 –2022
MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11​

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS(20 sentences / 5.0 marks)

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. ago B. across C. about D. adult

Question 2: A. French B. school C. mechanic D. chemistry

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:

A. awareness B. billion C. protection D. society

Question 4: A. apply B. differ C. decide D. protect

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word/phrase that has the closest meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 5: It is mandatory for blood banks to test all donated blood for the virus.

A. factory B. compulsory C. possible D. successful

Question 6: Land erosion is mainly caused by widespread deforestation.

A. afforestation B. reforestation C. logging D. lawn mowing

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best completes sentence in each of the following questions.

Question 7:

Tom suggested ________ out for dinner.

A. having gone B. to go C. going D.go

Question 8: ________ the photograph of the modern architecture of the mansion, I had no desire to go there.

A. To see B. Seeing C. Having seen D. Being seen

Question 9: In Vietnam a school year lasts for nine months and is divided ________ two terms.

A. into B. to C. from D. on

Question 10: Academic courses should teach practical skills ___________addition to critical thinking.

A. into B. to C. from D. in

Question 11: All of the disasters resulted from ________ will continue to have a devastating effect on socio-economic development.

A. ecological balance B. carbon footprint C. floods D. climate change

Question 12: It is not easy all to get a good job without any ________ qualifications.

A. academic B. social C. great D. favourite

Question 13: About one third of high school ________ who proceed directly to higher education enter community colleges.

A. quitters B. experts C. graduates D. teachers

Question 14: Tree plantation helps to reduce global warming since trees ________ CO2 in the air.

A. absorb B. emit C. release D. pollute

Question 15: Bachelor’s ________ include Bachelor of Arts (B.A.) and Bachelor of Science (B.SC.)

A. degrees B. agrees C. downturns D. achievement

Question 16: The heavy rain has caused ________ in many parts of the country.

A. food B. drought C. famine D. floods

Question 17: Online ________ education has made it easier than ever for students to learn various trade skills and soft skills from established professionals in the industry.

A. vocation B. vocational C. vocationally D. vocations

Question 18: So far I ________ any of the exams school.

A. haven’t been failing B. hadn’t failed C. didn’t fail D. haven’t failed

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 19:

I started the course two weeks ago, but I have already been passing most of the tests.

A. started B. ago C. have already been passing D. of the tests

Question 20: These companies were accused on having released a large amount of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

A. These company B. accused on C. having released D. into the atmosphere

B. RESPONSE QUESTIONS (10 sentences / 5.0 marks)

I. Put the verbs in brackets in the present perfect or the present perfect continuous tense. (1.0 mark)

Question 21:

He has lost his books. He (look) have been looking for them all afternoon, but they (not turn up) haven’t turned up yet.

Question 22: The phone (ring) has been ringing for 2 minutes, but I (not answer) haven’t answered it yet.

II. Read the text below and answer the following questions. (2.0 marks)

Higher Education in Germany​

There are currently 397 universities in Germany with a combined student population of approximately 2.8 million. Of these, 115 are universities or similar institutions; 217 are universities of applied sciences; 57 are colleges of art or music; and 8 do not belong to any of these three categories. Higher Education Institutions are either state or state-recognized institutions. In their operations, including the organization of studies and the designation and award of degrees, they are both subject to higher education legislation. Universities including various specialized institutions, offer the whole range of academic disciplines. In the German tradition, universities focus in particular on basic research so that advanced stages of study have mainly theoretical orientation and research-oriented components. Universities have the right to confer doctoral degrees and cater for the education and training of the next generation of academics. Universities of applied sciences concentrate their study programmes in engineering and other technical disciplines, business-related studies, social work, and design areas. The common mission of applied research and development implies a distinct application-oriented focus and professional character of studies, which include integrated and supervised work assignments in industry, enterprises or other relevant institutions. Almost a third of students attend universities of applied sciences.

Question 23: How many universities of applied sciences are there in Germany ?

→ There are 217 universities of applied sciences.

Question 24: Do Higher Education Institutions consist of both state and state-recognized institutions?

→ Yes, they do.

Question 25: What study programmes do universities of applied sciences offer?

→ They offer engineering and other technical disciplines, business-related studies, social work, and design areas.

Question 26: In the German tradition, why do advanced stages of study have mainly theoretical orientation and research-oriented components?

→ Because universities focus in particular on basic research.

III. Rewrite the sentences, using Perfect Participles/ Perfect Gerunds. (1.0 mark)

Question 27:

After I finished all my homework, I watched my favorite film on TV.

→ Having finished all my homework, I watched my favorite film on TV.

Question 28: The factory has dumped a huge amount of rubbish into the river. It was fined for that.

→ The factory was fined for having dumped a huge amount of rubbish into the river.

II. Rewrite the sentences, using the words given and the Present Perfect or Present Perfect Continuous tense. (1.0 mark)
Question 29: Nam’s still studying English. He started studying it two years ago. (for)

→ Nam has been studying English for two years.

Question 30: The graduate students started arriving four o’clock. They are in the lecture hall. (since)

→ The graduate students have all arrived the lecture hall.

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 – NĂM HỌC 2022 –2022
MÔN TIẾNG ANH 11​

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from the rest.

1. A. equippedB. deliveredC. transferredD. received2. A. helpsB. providesC. documentsD. texts3. A. parksB. animalsC. planetsD. environmentsII. VOCABULARY

Circle the letter before the word that can be best replaced with the word(s) in italic.

4. Thanh Ba Post Office is equipped with advanced technology.

A. modern B. outdated C. fashionable D. beautiful

5. Thanh Ba Post Office has a spacious and pleasant front office.

A. cramped B. large and with a lot of space C. narrow D. safe

6. Our post office offers the best services with a well-trained staff.

A. rule B. impolite C. beautiful D. qualified

7. Express Money Transfer is a speedy and secure service for transferring money in less than 24 hours.

A. fast and fixed B. fast and protected C. slow and safe D. useful and confident

8. Laws have been introduced to prohibit the killing of endangered animals.

A. advised B. decreased C. ban D. encouraged 9. Hunting for meat and burning forests for soils wildlife A. protect B. conserve C. destroy D. survive

10. Many organizations have been set up and funds have been raised.

A. established B. collapsed C. delayed D. decreased 11. Because of people’s _____with the environment, many kinds of plants and animals are becoming rare. A. supply B. survival C. influence D. interference 12. Garbage is considered to be some kind of ______. A. pollute B. pollutants C. pollution D. polluting 13. The ____ is the air, water and land in or on which people, animals and plants live. A. consequence B. environment C. planet D. resource 14. Can you turn the lights off before leaving the room?” – “______” A. Yes, I canB. No, I can’t C. Yes, of course D. No, I don’t.

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